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Jeremy
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 2:46 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Here is the first part of the article by Bob Passantino that I linked to above (and I highly recommend reading the rest):


quote:

Did the Father Leave the Son on the Cross?
By Bob Passantino, © 1991

On the cross Jesus said, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?" (Matthew 27:46). Many Christians believe this signifies the one and only time that there was a split between the first two persons of the Trinity, that is, between the Father and the Son. The argument asserts that when Jesus "became sin," the Father was unable to look upon him, hence he "forsook" Jesus. This argument seeks to emphasize the great cost to Christ on our behalf. He was even willing to endure separation from the Father to accomplish our salvation. However, I believe such an interpretation, while well intentioned, has heretical implications.[1] It is a denial of belief in one eternal, indivisible God.

First, if the Father cannot look upon sin, meaning that he had to turn away from the Son on the cross (and I have found no verse which says that), then what does that say about the character and deity of Jesus? Is Jesus somehow less than God, so that he can "look upon" the sin that was laid on him on the cross? Or does he simply have a stronger stomach for sin than the Father? Or perhaps Jesus is more merciful than the Father, able to suffer what the Father cannot even face? It is interesting that in Genesis 6:5, God looked upon the sin of mankind. When scripture says that God cannot "look" upon sin, contextually it means he cannot look with approval upon sin. His consistent reaction to sin is just judgment - against the unrepentant sinner, or through the atonement of Jesus Christ, the one who died in our place and on our behalf.

Second, Jesus quoted the beginning of Psalm 22 when he stated "My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?" The Psalm is referred to previously in the same passage. The common Jewish way of designating an entire psalm was to refer to the opening lines, since the psalms were not numbered at that time. Jesus did not believe God had forsaken him: this would be lack of faith, which is sin (Romans 14:23), and Jesus never sinned (Hebrews 4:15). He was himself God and always in perfect obedience to the Father. Instead, he referred to the psalm in its entirety as a messianic psalm. That he knew God had not actually forsaken him is clear from the same psalm, which says, "He has not despised nor abhorred the affliction of the afflicted; nor has He hidden His face from Him; But when He cried to Him, He heard" (verse 24). In fact, Jesus was declaring to his accusers that they were in the midst of fulfilling this psalm, which was commonly understood in His day to refer to the coming Messiah, the Suffering Servant. The psalmist himself understood that the "forsaking" of God was not abandonment, but a lifting of His Sovereign protection according to His divine plan so that the threats of his enemies could be carried out in fulfillment of prophecy. In fact, there were many times during Jesus' public ministry when His enemies sought to kill him (John 5:16; 8:59, for examples). They were not able to because, as He said, His "hour" was not yet come (John 12:23-28). He declared to Pilate, "You could have no power at all against Me unless it had been given you from above. Therefore the one who delivered Me to you has the greater sin" (John 19:11). On the day of Pentecost Peter declared that no one could have crucified Christ in defiance of God's power: "Him, being delivered by the determined counsel and foreknowledge of God, you have taken by lawless hands, have crucified, and put to death; whom God raised up, having loosed the pains of death, because it was not possible that He should be held by it" (Acts 2:23-24).

Third, when 2 Corinthians 5:21 says that God made Jesus "to be sin," it means that God made the penalty for all sin to fall upon Jesus, not that Jesus himself could become sin, e.g., sinful. As perfect God and perfect man, he could not sin. 1 Peter 1:19 calls Jesus "a lamb without blemish and without spot."

[...]

Answers In Action
P.O. Box 2067
Costa Mesa, California 92628
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Answers In Action c/o aia@answers.org




Read more at: http://www.answers.org/theology/forsaken.html

Jeremy

(Message edited by Jeremy on June 28, 2011)
River
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 3:02 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Jeremy,
It sounds like you are arguing for a partial atonement. Since I know you better than that, (from hundreds of previous posts)I know that is not what you're saying amounts too.

That out of the way, what was our destiny if Jesus hadn't done what he did? Wouldn't he have had to go fully in our place as the sacrificial lamb?

River
River
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 3:04 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Personally, I like Collen's answer the best.
Jeremy
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Post Number: 3707
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 3:25 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

River,

If Jesus had to suffer exactly what the unsaved will suffer, then He would have had to suffer total separation from God in the Lake of Fire for eternity, in both body and spirit. Obviously, that did not happen.

I believe that Jesus' sacrifice was of infinite value to pay the infinite price our sins deserve because He is the infinite God. As many have said before, that is why the Messiah had to be God--not Michael the archangel or just a sinless man. His sacrifice had to be of an infinite value in order to atone for the sins of mankind. Only God could do that.

But if Jesus was separated from God, then His atonement was not of an infinite value, but was instead only the sacrifice of a mere man and not God. Therefore, in order for His atonement to be complete and not partial, He had to be fully man and fully God and could not be separated from God.

Jeremy

(Message edited by Jeremy on June 28, 2011)
Animal
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 3:40 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

If God didnt forsake Christ on the Cross, why did Jesus say what He said??

...Just curious...Animal
Jeremy
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 3:48 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Animal,

Did you read the quote I posted above by Bob Passantino?

Jeremy
Seekinglight
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 3:50 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Is it possible that Jesus and the Father were separated in one sense but not another? I believe Jakob referred to this idea earlier.

The Bible says the Father was in Jesus at that time, but Jesus seemed to feel "separation" on some level.
Animal
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 4:55 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Jeremy..I didnt read the quote you referred to.
The words of that person isnt the Word of God. His words have no weight with me. Neither do the words of Calvin Sproul, Luther or any other theologian or scholar. These are mere people whose opinions are not "truth".

I will only accept Scripture as my standard of belief on such complex theological issues.

..Animal

(Message edited by animal on June 28, 2011)
Jeremy
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 5:02 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Animal,

Then why do you ask us questions? If we answer your questions, how is reading our answers any different than reading the writings of other "mere people"?

Jeremy

(Message edited by Jeremy on June 28, 2011)
Animal
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 5:04 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Answer me from Scripture...simple solution !!
Jeremy
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 5:05 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Then why can't Bob Passantino's article answer your question from Scripture?

Jeremy

(Message edited by Jeremy on June 28, 2011)
Animal
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 5:09 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

His answer isnt all scripture only..He sprinkles his opinions thru out his article.
Grace_alone
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 6:23 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Tom, Jeremy has a point. If you want scriptures only, then why don't you cross reference those verses and come up with the answer yourself instead of asking Jeremy. You just said that you don't accept "man's" answers on deep theological questions and then you turned right around and asked Jeremy for an answer.

The whole point of this thread is to discuss the why, not necessarily come up with THE stock answer.

Leigh Anne
Colleentinker
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 8:48 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Jeremy, good questions you asked earlier. I believe that Jesus holds the universe together...and since Scripture says all things came into being through Him, and in Him all things hold together...if this does signify a "role", it is a role that was assigned by God...which includes the Son. That being said, I don't think we can completely explain how the three Persons interact when they are One. We know they are three Persons, but they are one Being. I'm comfortable with not knowing whether the three function with some internal distinctions of role agreed upon in Him, or whether they all equally do everything.

I believe, though, that the Son does have at least one role that was His...to become incarnate. At the same time, He was not separate from the Father and the Spirit. I just don't see any evidence to say there aren't internal "roles" they all agree on--even though those roles do not exclude the participation of the others because they are One. Nevertheless, I can't die on this mountain because we just don't have enough details.

Jackob, I also really appreciated your focusing on imputation. I'm becoming convinced that the doctrine of imputation explains a whole lot that we didn't come close to understanding in the past. It begins to make even more sense to me when I realize that Adam's sin was imputed to all humanity; humanity's sin was imputed to Jesus--but with a difference: He was God, and He didn't suffer spiritual death (separation from God) as we do.

(And Jeremy, yes, I believe there is a difference between "forsake" and "separate"...and you're right that Scripture says Jesus asked His Father why He forsook Him...he did not say "separate".)

Anyway, just as Adam's sin was imputed to us so we all are born dead, just as our collective sin was imputed to the Lord Jesus, so His righteousness is imputed to us (reversing Adam's imputation to us) when we receive His death and resurrection as His work on our behalf.

We're actually transferred from the domain of darkness to the kingdom of God's beloved Son (Col. 1:13).

Colleen
River
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 9:44 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Jeremy, I believe I remember discussing the time factor in theology, I would have to dig up my notes though, but I believe I they said something like quality, not quantity...something like that.
Its a real chore digging though chicken scratch.

Not saying theirs was the right answer to this fascinating question.

Your quote: But if Jesus was separated from God, then His atonement was not of an infinite value, but was instead only the sacrifice of a mere man and not God.

This is exactly the point where my logic breaks down as it did when the subject was discussed in theology class.

Remember the theological conclusion? 100% God, 100% man? Didn't Jesus come as a man to suffer?
What if one second is enough, the separation would be complete, the man Jesus has suffered, the God Jesus went on being God. But as Colleen said, we can't quite understand all of it as yet.

God furnished his own sacrifice, that's logical because man, as man, could not have furnished his own sacrifice. If so then, is separation for an eternity, or separation for one 10th of a millisecond to the hundredth power not separation?

Quote: But if Jesus was separated from God, then His atonement was not of an infinite value, but was instead only the sacrifice of a mere man and not God.

Not logical, remember when Abraham was told to sacrifice his own son and God stopped him? That is a type and shadow of the sacrifice God intended to furnish for us.No matter what the method, God had to furnish the sacrifice. Man, being 100% man and created by God, could never, and I mean ever...save himself.

Yet if that perfect sacrifice of God, never knew separation for ANY length of time, would only be a partial redemption sacrifice, because man became separated from God spiritually in the time of Adam.

Can you tell us how God, being Spirit, inseminated a woman who is flesh and blood with flesh and blood?

Now, this is where logic REALLY begins to get freaky...was Jesus saying, "Myself, myself, why have I forsaken myself?"

Thats enough to make a man want to flee to Jeremy's side of the argument real fast. :-)

Tom,I am of the opinion that others input is of great value, whether it is pure scripture or not, because what makes the study of Bible theology, Bible theology, is our willingness to enter in to the struggle to understand, not being assured that we will come up with all the answers. Scripture is good for doctrine, reproof and correction.

By letter the word is dead to us, but by the Spirit it comes to life, The problem with Adventist is that they try to treat the word without the Spirit, and it is dead to them. I can understand your hesitation, But by the Spirit of God, you won't make that mistake again by listening to what others have to say and asking questions, because it is by the Holy Spirit you live and have life. I say this gently though.
River
River
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 9:50 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

I like that Colleen, "Die on this mountain." Ha! I'm with you sister, I ain't gonna die on this mountain if I can at all help it. I'm about to take another byte out of my vacation time, and looking forward to Thursday morning. Ha!
River
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 9:52 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Oh by the way? What is the difference between forsaken and separation? I don't want to try either one, do you?
River
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Post Number: 7269
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 9:59 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Planning on going to Phils this week end if he is going to be home, me and Phil will work the whole thing out for ya. Hows that?
Jeremy
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 10:15 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

River,


quote:

What if one second is enough, the separation would be complete, the man Jesus has suffered, the God Jesus went on being God.




Well, then you would be a "One-Second Gnostic/Nestorian." The ancient Gnostics taught that His divinity ("Christ") abandoned the man ("Jesus") on the Cross. I just don't see that as a viable option.

Here's an excerpt from a CRI article on Gnosticism:


quote:

DID CHRIST REALLY SUFFER AND DIE?

As in much modern New Age teaching, the Gnostics tended to divide Jesus from the Christ. For Valentinus, Christ descended on Jesus at his baptism and left before his death on the cross. Much of the burden of the treatise Against Heresies, written by the early Christian theologian Irenaeus, was to affirm that Jesus was, is, and always will be, the Christ. He says: "The Gospel...knew no other son of man but Him who was of Mary, who also suffered; and no Christ who flew away from Jesus before the passion; but Him who was born it knew as Jesus Christ the Son of God, and that this same suffered and rose again."25

Irenaeus goes on to quote John's affirmation that "Jesus is the Christ" (John 20:31) against the notion that Jesus and Christ were "formed of two different substances," as the Gnostics taught.26

In dealing with the idea that Christ did not suffer on the cross for sin, Irenaeus argues that Christ never would have exhorted His disciples to take up the cross if He in fact was not to suffer on it Himself, but fly away from it.27

For Irenaeus (a disciple of Polycarp, who himself was a disciple of the apostle John), the suffering of Jesus the Christ was paramount. It was indispensable to the apostolic "rule of faith" that Jesus Christ suffered on the cross to bring salvation to His people. In Irenaeus's mind, there was no divine spark in the human heart to rekindle; self-knowledge was not equal to God-knowledge. Rather, humans were stuck in sin and required a radical rescue operation. Because "it was not possible that the man...who had been destroyed through disobedience, could reform himself," the Son brought salvation by "descending from the Father, becoming incarnate, stooping low, even to death, and consummating the arranged plan of our salvation."28

This harmonizes with the words of Polycarp: "Let us then continually persevere in our hope and the earnest of our righteousness, which Jesus Christ, "who bore our sins in His own body on the tree" [1 Pet. 2:24], "who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth" [1 Pet. 2:22], but endured all things for us, that we might live in Him."29

Polycarp's mentor, the apostle John, said: "This is how we know what love is: Jesus Christ laid down his life for us" (1 John 3:16); and "This is love: not that we loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son as an atoning sacrifice for our sins" (4:10).

The Gnostic Jesus is predominantly a dispenser of cosmic wisdom who discourses on abstruse themes like the spirit's fall into matter. Jesus Christ certainly taught theology, but he dealt with the problem of pain and suffering in a far different way. He suffered for us, rather than escaping the cross or lecturing on the vanity of the body.

http://www.equip.org/articles/gnosticism-and-the-gnostic-jesus




River wrote:

quote:

Yet if that perfect sacrifice of God, never knew separation for ANY length of time, would only be a partial redemption sacrifice, because man became separated from God spiritually in the time of Adam.




So what you're saying is that it would only be a partial redemption/atonement because only our bodies would be redeemed if Jesus only suffered bodily death? That He had to experience spiritual death in order to redeem our spirits? I'm trying to understand what you mean by "partial atonement."

Jeremy

(Message edited by Jeremy on June 28, 2011)
River
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Posted on Tuesday, June 28, 2011 - 11:57 pm:   Edit PostDelete PostPrint Post   Move Post (Moderator/Admin Only)

Never in this world can we divide Jesus from the Christ. Jesus told Thomas to stick his hand into his side and believe, when or if we see Jesus, we will be able to touch his nail scarred hand.

No gnos-nest-er whatchmacall it Jeremy, I don't know whether I can make it plain what I am trying to say here, but here goes again.

The sacrifice has to be complete, other wise it is a partial atonement such as Adventism teaches.

I'm not trying to argue that you are wrong or I'm right old son.

But even in the type of the old sacrifice, the animal had to be whole, you couldn't cut a haunch off a lamb before you took it to the priest, am I right?

Not only the sacrifice had to be whole, but without spot or blemish. John said, "Behold the Lamb Or God, who takes away the sins of the world."

Now we know he was that spotless Lamb, that perfect sacrifice, I believe he said someplace himself that that was the reason he came into the world.

Now I ask you again, what would be our fate if there was no Jesus? Of if he had called that ten thousand angels to his rescue? What would be our fate? Would it be a continued separation from God?

I say again, the sacrifice had to be whole and complete, lets say you build half a house, you roof one side, but left the rafters bare in the other, then just walked away, would you say you completed the job? Of course not.

If our destiny was to remain separated from God, and if God did not furnish the whole sacrifice, then it is partial.
Therefore Jesus cried out, “ My God, my God, why has thou forsaken me?”

In one place Jesus explained that in the day of judgment he would say to those on his left, “Depart from me, I never knew you.”

And that is exactly what those who are separated from God will say, “My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me?” Because they will realize in that time that God, is God. They will realize their great loss and that loss is the whole sacrifice.

Now I don’t know whether this all makes sense to you, but one thing I am sure my beloved brother, I’m sure we are so grateful that Jesus was willing to go all the way, and that’s where we find common ground, is in him, not partially, but fully, in HIM.

That is the uniting bond. You know…when Christians have arguments and disagreements, I don’t know about you, but I’ll bet it is the same with you, God lets us stue and fizzle in our own stuff, till we come to a place of love once again. And it is because his sacrifice was complete in every detail, and God lets us know by his Holy Spirit that because of that whole sacrifice, we are the children of the most high God.

I know in my past I have carried around hurt for months, but God says, “Now River, you gotta let that go.”, and I end up loving again. We can’t even imagine what Jesus went through being the innocent spotless Lamb. Peter was willing, but ended up cuttin’ zee’s. we are willing, but we end up cuttin’ zee’s too.

Colleen remarked one time that she let God love those boys through her, now how did that come about? Can you explain the details of it? Well…me either, but I know just what she meant. Can we really understand the trinity? I sure can’t yet I know there is only one God. How do I know this? By my spirit which has been made alive in the Holy Spirit.
I know God will never forsake me, and it is because of Jesus.

Can we give God the Glory in this house?


:-) River

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