| Author | Message | ||
| Doug222 |
Our discussion of the Book of Romans in the thread "Regarding Adventism as a Cult," has caused me to go back and re-read the book again. As always, there are new gems to be discovered each time you read. I came across a text that I'd be interested in feedback from others on. It is one of those texts that I have always had some question about, because it appears to be contradictory. I think I have reconciled the difficulty I was having with it, but would be interested in others views. The text is Romans 4:13-15 (especially the last part of verse 15): 13. It was not through the law that Abraham and his offspring received the promise that he would be heir of the world, but through the righteousness that comes by faith. 14. For if those who live by law are heirs, faith has no value and the promise is worthless, 15. because law brings wrath. And where there is no law there is no transgression. How do you interpret the part of verse 15 that says "and where there is no law there is no transgression?" I have heard this text used to support the perpetualness (sp) of the law, but that view would seem to be inconsistent with other scripture. In His Grace Doug | ||
| Sabra |
Doug, I think that for the believer who accepts the love of the cross, there is no sin because it has been blotted out, Jesus has taken it away from the one who has faith enough to accept him. Of course we still sin but it is forgiven sin that we have faith and confidence enough in Jesus to know that we are forgiven. Unlike those under the law who had no sense of freedom from their sin, they were (are) constantly, consciously reminded of them. When someone chooses to keep the law they are trying to save themselves, they don't have the faith to let Jesus do it. Where there is no law (there is Jesus instead) and there is no transgression in Him. Sabra | ||
| Windmotion |
Romans 4:14-15, "For if those who live by law are heirs, faith has no value and the promise is worthless, because law brings wrath. And where there is no law there is no transgression." I believe the law mentioned in the last part of verse 15 is the eternal law of God, the law of love. If this law were not in affect, then Jesus would not have had to die on the cross, because no one would have sinned. Verse 15 also says that law brings wrath, or punishment. Jesus took that punishment for us on the cross. Paul is saying our salvation comes not by keeping the law, but by acknowledging it is impossible to keep the law and accepting that someone else has paid the penalty for our sin. | ||
| Richardhardison |
Barnes notes on the NT has about as good an explanation of the passage as I've seen, "Worketh wrath. Produces or causes wrath. While man is fallen, and a sinner, its tendency, so far from justifying him, and producing peace, is just the reverse. It condemns, denounces wrath, and produces suffering. The word wrath here is to be taken in the sense of punishment, #Ro 2:8; and the meaning is, that the law of God, demanding perfect purity, and denouncing every sin, condemns the sinner, and consigns him to punishment. As the apostle had proved #Ro 1:1-3:29 that all were sinners, so it followed that if any attempted to be justified by the law, they would be involved only in condemnation and wrath. "For where no law is, etc. This is a general principle; a maxim of common justice and of common sense. Law is a rule of conduct. If no such rule is given and known, there can be no crime. Law expresses what may be done, and what may not be done. If there is no command to pursue a certain course, no injunction to forbid certain conduct, actions will be innocent. The connexion in which this declaration is made here seems to imply, that as the Jews had a multitude of clear laws, and as the Gentiles had the laws of nature, there could be no hope of escape from the charge of their violation. Since human nature was depraved, and men were prone to sin, the more just and reasonable the laws, the less hope was there of being justified by the law, and the more certainty was there that the law would produce wrath and condemnation." In Romans 1 Paul tells us, "20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even His eternal power and Godhead, so that they are without excuse, 21 because, although they knew God, they did not glorify Him as God, nor were thankful, but became futile in their thoughts, and their foolish hearts were darkened."(NKJV) I don't agree that the 10 commandments were around at the creation, but there was a form of law. One has to ask how Cain and Able knew to make sacrifices, or how did Joseph know that it was wrong to have sex with Potaphars wife? Somehow man has always had available what was right and wrong since the fall. This is what Paul seems to be referring to. 4:16 points further, "Therefore it is of faith that it might be according to grace, so that the promise might be sure to all the seed, not only to those who are of the law, but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all" The thrust of the paragraph is that righteousness comes by faith and Paul points out that Abraham's faith was what was accounted as righteousness (4:3, Gen 15:6). I will point out that speculative theologians try to make the point that it is Christ's righteousness that is imputed to us. I find no support for this in scripture. It is faith in God and his provision that brings us to salvation and is accounted, or credited to us, as righteousness. From Abraham to Paul God has required we approach Him in faith, not by some ceremony or liturgy, but simply by believing God Richard L. Hardison |
